I have no proofs; I don't think very many proofs exist with regards to this topic.
From what I've been able to gather, I think the cardinality of the normal and non-normal numbers are the same, even though the non-normal numbers are measurably greater because of probability distributions. This is a paradox that I don't really understand. http://forums.xkcd.com/viewtopic.php?f=3&t=4270
Anything related to the concept of infinity tends to be hardly understandable in an "emotional" or "intuitive" way. We can just apply the rules of logic and accept.
How sure are you with that one? Mind to supply a proof?