One could argue that the large difference in sample sizes (more than fivefold) justifies scale manipulation to bring the variances into line, but it doesn't appear to me that the author normalized on variance at all (the axis should be something like 800-2000).
I generally feel that zeroing the axis is never wrong, but yes, in this instance a (properly) cut axis would be better than correct. However, it should be apparent at a glance, and the presence of the other two graphs complicates things as well, so I have some reservations.