Hacker Newsnew | past | comments | ask | show | jobs | submitlogin

OK, so the following happened:

    1. User got spam
    2. GoDaddy ... provid(es) spammer with the user's email
    3. Spammer ... using the email address GoDaddy provided
But wait, how did step one happen? Spammer must have had user's email, as a pre-requisite to sending said spam via email (presumably) in the first place?

I'm confused. Or am I missing something important?



Guidelines | FAQ | Lists | API | Security | Legal | Apply to YC | Contact

Search: