I agree. O(100s of billions) = O(1). | Hacker News

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		zodiac on Oct 18, 2013 \| parent \| context \| favorite \| on: A Successful YC S13 Application I agree. O(100s of billions) = O(1).

nawitus on Oct 18, 2013 [–]

Even more precisely: If a function belongs to O(100s of billions), it also belongs to O(1).

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