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This is not an example of the no true scotsman fallacy. A commenter opined on one plausible scenario for "why now." Another disagreed. The scotsman fallacy requires both a universal generalization and a specific repudiation of that generalization (therefore disproving it), neither of which occurred.

No evidence was presented showing that government sources did not work with journalists to publicize a narrative that furthered some agenda from within that agency. Sources from that agency talked; the only question is why now and not OCTOBER OF LAST YEAR[1] when this relationship was broken in the press.

[1] https://www.nytimes.com/2025/10/09/technology/nvidia-chips-c...

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