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I could understand how this applies to state universities, but how does the US Constitution have this kind of jurisdiction over Harvard?


Harvard receives public funds from the government. Assumingly, if Harvard chose to no longer receive those funds, they wouldn't have to comply.


If this can't apply to Harvard, then presumably it's legal to have private schools that only allow white people?


I don't see how it would be unconstitutional, but it would probably be illegal per the civil rights act.

Though now that you mention it, I looked at the article a bit more closely. It says that conservatives "...argued that the Constitution and the civil rights law prohibited discrimination based on race...". The civil rights law part makes more sense than the constitution part. But, the article says that the SCOTUS based this on the 14th amendment.

It's probably more complicated than this article makes it out to be.


Private college status doesn't override basic rights elucidated by the Constitution which are further spelled out by various civil rights laws.


Civil rights laws sure, but the constitution generally defines the role of and restrictions on the government.

I think the answer must be that Harvard has government contracts or something (as others responded to me).




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