Can you explain your point more? You innitialy said you don’t know how anyone could reasonably see the London city center being divided between Arabic and Russian oil oligarchs as a negative. I reaponded that people do not like that by the fact that the London city center has been split between billionaries it necessarily means that others cannot live there. I compared it to the gentrification argument happening in the US. I'm not clear on which part is not reasonable based on your comment.
More importantly you innitially said what is happening could not be seen as a negative. Now you are saying that it is a negative but the blame rests on policy makers and not oligarchs. When did I say who the blame fell on? And how do you explain the change in your argumet from the London city center being divided between Arabic and Russian oil oligarchs not being a negative to now being a negative?
