Assuming for the moment this is real, could somebody ELI5 how this would work in practice in the face of the first sale doctrine?
(1) Chip manufacturers can't use ARM IP without appropriate permission/licensing in the first place, so they would _still_ need some ARM contract to even make the things, right?
(2) The first-sale doctrine doesn't grant unlimited rights -- OEMs can't reverse engineer and clone a chip -- but certainly they can attach it unadultered to other components so long as there aren't separate patent issues for that particular combination of underlying technologies? Does ARM perhaps have a patent on stuff that looks like "ARM Core" + "Neural Accelerator" or something like that?
(3) Assuming there aren't any loopholes out of first-sale, is the play that in the contract in (1) ARM prohibits direct sale and requires chip manufacturers to profit via some contract that includes language about OEMs having to pay ARM? Is that sort of law-skirting anti-competitiveness actually allowed here or in other domains?
(1) Chip manufacturers can't use ARM IP without appropriate permission/licensing in the first place, so they would _still_ need some ARM contract to even make the things, right?
(2) The first-sale doctrine doesn't grant unlimited rights -- OEMs can't reverse engineer and clone a chip -- but certainly they can attach it unadultered to other components so long as there aren't separate patent issues for that particular combination of underlying technologies? Does ARM perhaps have a patent on stuff that looks like "ARM Core" + "Neural Accelerator" or something like that?
(3) Assuming there aren't any loopholes out of first-sale, is the play that in the contract in (1) ARM prohibits direct sale and requires chip manufacturers to profit via some contract that includes language about OEMs having to pay ARM? Is that sort of law-skirting anti-competitiveness actually allowed here or in other domains?