I don't think that referring to a single anecdote as a "nail in the coffin" of a position while complaining of the lack of "actual studies" in support of that position is terribly consistent.
The position I'm attacking is the claim that it's just obvious that imperative programming is more intuitive, not that it is more intuitive. By exhibiting counterexamples to this supposedly obvious assertion, it's shown that it is not in fact obvious. Whether imperative or declarative programming is in fact more intuitive is, of course, not something to be settled by the anecdote give in the link.
