You are mistaken. Your proof is correct. You assert that no prime less than or equal to N divides N!+1. The argument is clear. The other poster gives an example that does not gainsay that assertion.
From your assertion the contradiction follows that if N were to be the largest prime ...
If my construction doesn't work for all arbitrary primes then it won't be guaranteed to work for "a largest prime", which means it doesn't provide an example of one way "infinite" is treated in modern mathematics.
(Remember, the original essay described a constructive requirement for "infinite" - “If you think there are infinitely many, write them all down.” I wanted to demonstrate how to think about infinity without that requirement.)
If someone in New Zealand sends me a letter and it's delivered to neighbor, it's still delivered to the wrong house - even if it gets to me eventually.