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This only means it would be pegged to the gold standard set by the FED, I reckon.

Edit: I'm serious. I'm not saying that's a realistic option.



If you want to be serious; please provide a serious basis for your commentary rather than just making things up.

For example: there is no gold standard set by the Federal Reserve, nor any conceptual relevance of gold to the value of the dollar, since the 1970s.


Then the entire clause would be meaningless. I should have said pegged to the US$, but I thought that was obviously implied.




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