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If the females are ZW, why can't they make WW or ZW?


ZW is less likely because normally parthenogenesis starts with a haploid egg cell (Z or W) that undergoes meiosis alone, copying its own chromosomes - becoming ZZ if it started as Z and WW if it started as W. WW is normally not viable, just like YY in mammals, so the most likely case of parthenogenesis by far is ZZ, male.


So in this case, the ZZ offspring is a genetic clone of its grandfather? That's the only sense I can make of it.

No, wait, half clone. Yup, I'm fully confused by this turn of events.


It's a "clone" of half of the mother's DNA. The mother had random inheritance from its parents. So it's not a clone of the grandparents, but it's a copy of (half of the) mix that the mother had.


No, it's more like an extreme case of in-breeding.

On the other hand, if a mammal were to produce a viable fertile offspring through parthenogenesis, then that offspring would be a clone of it's mother.


Meant to say: mammal mother produces a viable offspring through parthenogenesis, which in mammals would be XX, a daughter, an in-bred individual. Now, if that daughter produces another daughter through parthenogenesis, then this second generation of parthenogenesis individual would be a clone of the first generation daughter.


Thank you!




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