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Actual paper ...

> Among participants who tested positive for COVID-19, 68.7% experienced at least one symptom after 30 days, marking the distinction for long COVID. This prevalence increased to 77% after 60 days of follow-up. Researchers also found that individuals who experienced long COVID were more likely to be less educated, have seasonal allergies and pre-existing health conditions, and self-report greater symptom severity than people without long COVID.

https://journals.plos.org/plosone/article?id=10.1371/journal...




In this study N = 303, and ~67% of these participants had at least one pre-existing chronic condition. Furthermore the symptoms were self-reported through an online survey.

Pointing out these facts because the results are far from conclusive, and thus may not be representative of the population at large.


How can the prevalence increase between 30 and 60 days? Shouldn't this be x days of continuously experiencing the symptoms? Otherwise why do they assume the symptom is from the same continued illness?


Because their immune systems are weak due to unhealthy food and life habits that poor, uneducated people usually have.

We don't need vaccines, we need to start taking care of our bodies. If you look at countries where the majority of people are educated and in good shape like Sweden, covid deaths are near 0 now because natural immunity has taken care of it.


> Sweden, covid deaths are near 0

No, they are not. 15k is much greater than zero, especially in such a small country.

https://www.worldometers.info/coronavirus/country/sweden/

I don't think it's worth discussing the rest of your comment, you believe what you want to believe.




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