Every time I see the NAS study mentioned I feel compelled to mention it said that while a psychogenic cause was entirely possible, as they never performed psychiatric evaluations they could not conclude that was the cause.
How they then conclude that a microwave attack is the most plausible is beyond me.
How could psychiatric evaluations conclude that anyway? There is no test for somatic symptom disorder, the diagnostic criteria are just that the symptoms are not adequately explained by physical causes. It often happens in people who are completely healthy mentally.
How they then conclude that a microwave attack is the most plausible is beyond me.