> If I receive my ballot at home, complete it at home, and then deliver it to mailbox or drop box, at what point can someone intercept me and "force me" to show it to them?
At the point the next morning when you go into work without your ballot and your boss says "I told you to bring your ballot" and you get punished. Or your spouse/parents/housemates take it and fill it out differently than you would have. Or you're institutionalized and the employees of the institution apply for and take the ballots of all the patients and "help" them by filling them all out for the same candidate and submitting them.
> So you think someone could sway an election by intercepting people holding mail-in ballots, "forcing" them to show them the ballot, and then bribing/punishing(?) them as an incentive to change the vote? Like you think someone could do this at a large enough scale to change the outcome of an election?
One person doing this is unlikely to change the result. 0.1% of people doing this to ten people each when the margin of victory is 1% would change the outcome of an election.
> And if that's true, why aren't there any documented cases of this happening?
The unknowable question is how many undocumented cases there are because the perpetrators are difficult to catch when the victims fear retaliation for turning them in.
> As soon as someone forced you to change your vote, you could call your elections board, report it, file a criminal complaint, and submit a new ballot.
How does that help if the method of coercion used to make you change your vote is also used to keep you from reporting it?
At the point the next morning when you go into work without your ballot and your boss says "I told you to bring your ballot" and you get punished. Or your spouse/parents/housemates take it and fill it out differently than you would have. Or you're institutionalized and the employees of the institution apply for and take the ballots of all the patients and "help" them by filling them all out for the same candidate and submitting them.
> So you think someone could sway an election by intercepting people holding mail-in ballots, "forcing" them to show them the ballot, and then bribing/punishing(?) them as an incentive to change the vote? Like you think someone could do this at a large enough scale to change the outcome of an election?
One person doing this is unlikely to change the result. 0.1% of people doing this to ten people each when the margin of victory is 1% would change the outcome of an election.
> And if that's true, why aren't there any documented cases of this happening?
There are documented cases of this happening:
https://nypost.com/2020/09/27/project-veritas-uncovers-ballo...
The unknowable question is how many undocumented cases there are because the perpetrators are difficult to catch when the victims fear retaliation for turning them in.
> As soon as someone forced you to change your vote, you could call your elections board, report it, file a criminal complaint, and submit a new ballot.
How does that help if the method of coercion used to make you change your vote is also used to keep you from reporting it?