> I suppose this implies that the employee is Iranian
Sorry what??? I have family in India, but not because I'm Indian, I just have family there. I have family in Poland, not because I am Polish (well I am kind of, but not on paper). I have family in the UK, but I'm not British.
You seem rather outraged by the sensible assumption that parents living in Iran are probably Iranian, and that a person with two Iranian parents is probably also Iranian.
In 2021, people are still directly related to their parents, and the majority of citizens in most countries is indeed the local population.
They may of course have obtained American citizenship now, but we're talking in the context of crazy US sanctions on Iran here, which I think work on connection to Iran.
I don't think there should be any consequence to being Iranian, but I don't have a say in American politics.
Such presumptions have, historically, led to such actions as the wholesale internment of Japanese Americans during World War II. This included 2nd and 3rd generations born in America, who never had left America. [1]
It's an assumption that carries collective trauma and negative connotations for many who's ancestors have experienced painful discrimination because of their ancestry.
> I don't think there should be any consequence to being Iranian, but I don't have a say in American politics.
No, you don't. But you do have a voice to ask critical and nuanced questions out loudly.
> It's common sense that most people are from the same country their parents are from, given what we know about immigration.
The legal concept you're referring to is called "ius soli". The legal concept which serves as a basis to determine someone's allegiance by their ancestry is called "ius sanguinis". [1][2]
So, no, it's not "common sense" to make that assumption.
Moreover, there's also the concept of "right to return" in international law. Many nations have implemented this in their nationality laws in a way that extends surprisingly far.
For instance, if you're of Luxembourgish descent through the male line of your family, you could just claim Luxembourg citizenship - and by extension E.U. citizenship - under Article 7 of their nationality laws. Something which was recently pointed out on Reddit. Even if you weren't born in Luxembourg or never have set a foot in the E.U. proper. [3]
I'm pretty sure some people might be surprised to discover they have a right to citizenship in another nation simply because they took the time to dig into their ancestry, their history and nationality laws.
> Interning people based on predicting their behavior due to ancestry is a whole different ballgame.
Of course it is.
But, why discuss someone's citizenship or ancestry then if it - apparently - doesn't matter in this discussion at all?
The only other theory that explains why this person got his access revoked from Github because he visited Iran, regardless of the reasons why, nevermind his citizenship or his ancestry.
If citizenship and/or ancestry matters, as is seemingly implied but never voiced in this discussion, then bringing up the implications of how policies reflect on that assumption clearly is relevant given the historic perspective.
> Those two rights deal with determining citizenship at birth.
Citizenship is always first determined at birth. This isn't relevant to the discussion.
> The common sense idea deals with the probability of someone (already born) being of a certain citizenship given their parents' location.
That would be "ius soli". As opposed to "ius sanguinis".
It's also not a "probability". These are principles which are formally enshrined in nationality laws and very much determine travel, migration and national security policies in different nations. Including the United States.
These are not "common sense" either.
These are laws which come with a long historical pedigree which includes identity politics, economic policies, moral and ideological values, and so on.
They are also very much subject to change through the dominant politics of the day.
> Not allegiance, citizenship. Different, but similar concept again.
I'm not willing to engage in a semantic discussion.
> that a person with two Iranian parents is probably also Iranian.
It depends on the countries' respective laws, but it's certainly possible that the person in question is not Iranian at all in terms of nationality as opposed to ancestory. As I recall, the law in question pertains to Iranian nationals, not those who happen to have Iranian ancestory.
Sorry what??? I have family in India, but not because I'm Indian, I just have family there. I have family in Poland, not because I am Polish (well I am kind of, but not on paper). I have family in the UK, but I'm not British.
This is 2021, not Christopher Columbus times.