No; capitalism is a system based upon property rights and as such it requires that contracts are voluntary and mutually consensual. The USA doesn't have capitalism, it has a Mixed Economy, which combines aspects of capitalism and socialism.
In a relatively unregulated marketplace, an Uber driver comes with their time, equipment and skills, ready to trade them for money. Uber in exchange offers money and the use of its infrastructure and relationships. Together they potentially agree a price, but neither side, nor the government nor some other external entity can dictate terms of their agreement.
Wealth inequality is only an issue if your world-view demands that you makes it into one. In a free market, wealth inequality in itself does not affect a person's life in any tangible way. Your comment about the wages of laborers seems to relate to the Labor Theory of Value; this concept is often used in conjunction with a claim that labour is inabstractable in an attempt to dismiss the interchangeability of human labor for automation, but that's patently absurd, because we're talking about this on a messaging board for computer programmers. Our economic system, even with its burdensome and overweening regulation, still does a good job of allocating resources to productive enterprises and people, and I'm afraid that in the laborer-capital-investor example that you gave at the start, the worker is only gaining from the deployment of capital in proportion to what they themselves have deferred the consumption of and then risked in the deployment of capital (vice versa with the investor and their labor). And of course, that example is less applicable these days, because people generally have pensions and own shares.
(But don't worry, if I'm wrong, you can go ahead and make a ton of money proving it)
In a relatively unregulated marketplace, an Uber driver comes with their time, equipment and skills, ready to trade them for money. Uber in exchange offers money and the use of its infrastructure and relationships. Together they potentially agree a price, but neither side, nor the government nor some other external entity can dictate terms of their agreement.
Wealth inequality is only an issue if your world-view demands that you makes it into one. In a free market, wealth inequality in itself does not affect a person's life in any tangible way. Your comment about the wages of laborers seems to relate to the Labor Theory of Value; this concept is often used in conjunction with a claim that labour is inabstractable in an attempt to dismiss the interchangeability of human labor for automation, but that's patently absurd, because we're talking about this on a messaging board for computer programmers. Our economic system, even with its burdensome and overweening regulation, still does a good job of allocating resources to productive enterprises and people, and I'm afraid that in the laborer-capital-investor example that you gave at the start, the worker is only gaining from the deployment of capital in proportion to what they themselves have deferred the consumption of and then risked in the deployment of capital (vice versa with the investor and their labor). And of course, that example is less applicable these days, because people generally have pensions and own shares.
(But don't worry, if I'm wrong, you can go ahead and make a ton of money proving it)