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Citation please? I was under the impression that UK employers always need to give a (valid) reason. The only change at two years of which I'm aware is that this is the point at which redundancy payments (US: severence pay) starts to become due in case of redundancy.



Qualifying period to claim unfair dismissal at tribunal is 2 years: https://www.gov.uk/dismissal/what-to-do-if-youre-dismissed


That doesn't necessarily legalise unfair dismissal for the employer though, does it?




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