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> That would just mean that some Americans donate a lot.

Are you saying this doesn't also occur in other nations, like Germany?




The US has the highest level of wealth inequality in the world, so assuming that the ultra-rich donate more, their impact should be higher in the US than anywhere else.



That's income inequality. You want wealth inequality.

http://fortune.com/2015/09/30/america-wealth-inequality/

Admittedly they only surveyed 55 countries, which I will openly admit to missing.

In addition, I'm not sure how the law of large numbers applies to wealth, which roughly follows a power law instead of being randomly distributed.


I think I want income inequality. Wealth inequality might be totally meaningless as wealth is guesstimate not exact value usually, e.g. look here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_distribut..., is hard to say anything at all from Gini Wealth. Zimbabwe and Denmark can be compared by Gini index but that's completely nonsensical result: one corrupt and one happiest country in the world.

I have mentioned law of large numbers because of population size, however rich ultra-rich might be that can't skew results in USA.


>assuming that the ultra-rich donate more

That's a terrible assumption:

https://www.fool.com/taxes/2018/07/02/heres-how-much-the-ave...




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