To some degree isn't this expected? I mean, if real gdp growth is 1 or 2 percent per year why wouldn't some of that go to drug prices? Plus, why wouldn't this just be a preference thing?
I think the underlying assumption is that more money is being spent for drugs that are equivalent. Is that reasonable or provable assumption?
I think the underlying assumption is that more money is being spent for drugs that are equivalent. Is that reasonable or provable assumption?