> "GPLed code linked into a program doesn't magically make the program GPLed"
> Lots of people for debatable but legitimate reasons believe that GPLv2 does this.
> They don't realize that this doesn't apply to GPLv3, nor to the AGPLv3.
Honestly I simply think you're not understanding me. Let me summarize: linking GPLed code without GPLing your own code and without having any other license to do so is copyright infringement. There are multiple ways to avoid infringement. You can pay the authors for another license, you can possibly remove the code and pay the authors enough so they're drop the matter, you can go to court, or you can release your own code under the GPL.
You do understand that that is not the same as saying that "linking GPLed code to your code makes your code GPLed" right?
edit: Apologies if I misunderstood you when you said: "Lots of people for debatable but legitimate reasons believe that GPLv2 does this." Maybe you don't believe this yourself (which is what I assumed when drafting my reply here). I agree with you that lots of people believe this, but it basically isn't debatable and certainly is wrong. Put another way: What is the legal rationale for the claim that linking GPLed code immediately makes the linking code GPLed?
Assuming that linked code is distributed. You can use it internally as much as you want. (With the caveat that distribution has a broader meeting under AzGPL.)
You are 100% correct that you can execute/link/etc. GPLed code without following the terms of the license when you're not distributing your code. But I'm not referring to distribution. I'm saying that if you were to link your own non-GPLed code to GPLed code _and_ you were to distribute it, your code would not automatically become GPLed code. You would be infringing upon copyright. There are multiple options to stop that infringement which do not involve GPLing your code.
> Lots of people for debatable but legitimate reasons believe that GPLv2 does this.
> They don't realize that this doesn't apply to GPLv3, nor to the AGPLv3.
Honestly I simply think you're not understanding me. Let me summarize: linking GPLed code without GPLing your own code and without having any other license to do so is copyright infringement. There are multiple ways to avoid infringement. You can pay the authors for another license, you can possibly remove the code and pay the authors enough so they're drop the matter, you can go to court, or you can release your own code under the GPL.
You do understand that that is not the same as saying that "linking GPLed code to your code makes your code GPLed" right?
edit: Apologies if I misunderstood you when you said: "Lots of people for debatable but legitimate reasons believe that GPLv2 does this." Maybe you don't believe this yourself (which is what I assumed when drafting my reply here). I agree with you that lots of people believe this, but it basically isn't debatable and certainly is wrong. Put another way: What is the legal rationale for the claim that linking GPLed code immediately makes the linking code GPLed?