Do you dispute the core of my argument, or are you principally interested in this particular semantic diversion? If the latter, do you feel that it actually helps answer the original poster's question? If the former, then what more do you feel that you have to gain by continuing along this line of argumentation, since I've already stated my agreement above?
Look, O-notation has a precise mathematical definition. So the question whether O(cn) = O(n) has a precise answer, independent of whether the answer happens to be helpful or practical. The answer is "yes". A proof can be found on wikipedia. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_O_notation
