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Individual income inequality has been approximately flat for the last 50 years. The variety of income inequality that has increased is household inequality, but that's mostly driven by social changes as that metric is hugely sensitive to the nature and size of households. ( http://www.aei.org/publication/sorry-krugman-piketty-and-sti... )

Your #3 has always been true but is arguably less so today than in past given the continuing fragmentation and loss of authority of large news sources.

If your #1 is supposed to represent a change from some golden earlier era...which era are you thinking of, exactly?



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