> FWIW, I did read a bunch of book like the ones I mentioned above when I was writing a paper on a EULA-related topic during my law degree, and as a result I don't make any blanket statements about the topic any more.
Thanks, that's a completely satisfactory answer. (It's the Feynman-style "it's complicated, and any analogizing just makes it incorrect, thus making the analogy (or simile) useless" answer.)
And okay, they're are not separate things, but this sort of problem seems like what SCOTUS spends long minutes discussing in oral arguments. Because they are indeed separate things, one is a (physical or digital) copy and one is a grant of IP rights. At least't that's how I use the word. At least that's the piece of abstract thing that's necessary to make the copy non-infringing, right?
But, then, it comes down to good or bad faith of the seller. If the seller/vendor does not disclose the exact terms, but gives you the impression that after paying you you can use said copy for such and such purpose, that's seems to be 'false advertising'.
Thanks, that's a completely satisfactory answer. (It's the Feynman-style "it's complicated, and any analogizing just makes it incorrect, thus making the analogy (or simile) useless" answer.)
And okay, they're are not separate things, but this sort of problem seems like what SCOTUS spends long minutes discussing in oral arguments. Because they are indeed separate things, one is a (physical or digital) copy and one is a grant of IP rights. At least't that's how I use the word. At least that's the piece of abstract thing that's necessary to make the copy non-infringing, right?
But, then, it comes down to good or bad faith of the seller. If the seller/vendor does not disclose the exact terms, but gives you the impression that after paying you you can use said copy for such and such purpose, that's seems to be 'false advertising'.