> 400 years of brutal slavery and genocide inflicted on an entire race of God's chosen people?
You make it sound like the `God's chosen people' part is relevant to the moral discussion. If the Egyptians had been the slaves and Israelites the slave holders, would that change things?
What about if it was the Americans and their black slaves, a couple hundred year ago?
Would infanticide be justified then?
I don't even see how the Egyptians moral crimes are relevant. The party that is primarily punished is the only innocent one: children.
That's before we even consider whether the death sentence is ever justifiable.
> Two moral crimes, good sir, now who's to be the judge?
As the old adage goes, two wrongs, good sir, don't make a right.
You make it sound like the `God's chosen people' part is relevant to the moral discussion. If the Egyptians had been the slaves and Israelites the slave holders, would that change things?
What about if it was the Americans and their black slaves, a couple hundred year ago?
Would infanticide be justified then?
I don't even see how the Egyptians moral crimes are relevant. The party that is primarily punished is the only innocent one: children.
That's before we even consider whether the death sentence is ever justifiable.
> Two moral crimes, good sir, now who's to be the judge?
As the old adage goes, two wrongs, good sir, don't make a right.