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Wouldn't "no denial of care" cause healthcare cost to rise because of increased demand?


There is no simple link between the two.

I wonder whether increasing the price of healthcare until people can't pay, which is how a free market would handle increased demand for a limited resource, counts as "denial of care".

I don't think you meant it in this way, but someone's healthcare cost could go up, even if no-one changes their prices, if someone demands more expensive care than they need and a doctor can't refuse it in fear of "denial of care" lawsuits.


Adverse selection may cause costs to rise. (I say "may" because I don't know which version of the bill was just passed.)

For one of the major versions of the bill, it was cheaper for many people to pay the tax hike rather than buy insurance. This means that the cheapest way to get health care is to pay higher taxes and buy insurance after you get sick.


That’s why there is now a mandate for everyone to buy health insurance (with partial subsidies for those who can’t afford it)—to force young healthy folks to get their premiums in the pool even if they’d rather not buy insurance and hope they never need more health care than they can pay for up front.


More money to buy health care does not automatically or instantly increase the supply. Especially if the new regime is so onerous and nonremunerative that a lot of older doctors retire early.




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