None of the things listed above are in the legal definition of genocide. (Such as Palestinians not being a race.. So what? So there can not be a genocide qualification? This is irrelevant...)
Whenever I am in contact with folks that I feel have some large identity, I make sure that they understand I am of the same race as them. I have found it really helps with communication.
The definition from the UN which you’re probably referring to is “in whole or in part” so if three Hamas members in Gaza die then Gazans have, in part, been genocided.
Practical discussion should should be aware not to cherry pick quotes :-(
"All Jewish citizens get to vote (and all Jews can become citizens), but less than a quarter of the Palestinians under Israel’s rule have citizenship and can thus vote. "
We can see that at least 28% Arabs are citizens of Israel (not<25%). Since they live in "official" Israel.
All the others don't since they don't live in Israel. How is it a JEW related problem?
How did your sentence change the problem I suggested.
How does the word JEW make any of it practical?
B'tselem's actual report is as good a case for why Israel should be understood as an apartheid society privileging Jews as any we are going to make here in comments. They spent time researching it and writing it, unlike our off the cuff comments.
I understand it will not convince you either, but I hope you will read it.
> Israel accords Palestinians a different package of rights in every one of these units – all of which are inferior compared to the rights afforded to Jewish citizens. The goal of Jewish supremacy is advanced differently in every unit, and the resulting forms of injustice differ: the lived experience of Palestinians in blockaded Gaza is unlike that of Palestinian subjects in the West Bank, permanent residents in East Jerusalem or Palestinian citizens within sovereign Israeli territory. Yet these are variations on the fact that all Palestinians living under Israeli rule are treated as inferior in rights and status to Jews who live in the very same area.
> Detailed below are four major methods the Israeli regime uses to advance Jewish supremacy. Two are implemented similarly throughout the entire area: restricting migration by non-Jews and taking over Palestinian land to build Jewish-only communities, while relegating Palestinians to small enclaves. The other two are implemented primarily in the Occupied Territories: draconian restrictions on the movement of non-citizen Palestinians and denial of their political rights. Control over these aspects of life lies entirely in Israel’s hands: in the entire area, Israel has sole power over the population registry, land allocation, voter rolls and the right (or denial thereof) to travel within, enter or exit any part of the area.
They are also wrong sometimes, and should be called out about it, so why not stick to facts rather than hyperbolizes like:
> Yet these are variations on the fact that all Palestinians living under Israeli rule are treated as inferior in rights and status to Jews who live in the very same area.
Which again is a simple LIE since Palestinian citizens within sovereign Israeli territory have the EXACT same rights.
Want to talk how the past influence the present and so they might have less opportunities due to some discriminations in the past? Sure. Saying that TODAY they are "inferior in rights" is just a LIE.
That is why B'tselem's post is an OPNION and not a peer reviewed article.
The biggest proof of it all is how none of the European sanction Israel. If it so obvious that it such a one sided power dynamic, then France, Britain and Germany would act on it a long time ago. But they don't. Since it is not.
You might think that "I am resisting the truth", but I'm just a spoiler to everywhere outside the Internet sphere. No one really think Israel is an apartheid state (majority). And using hyperbolae will not convince anyone. I really don't care what happen a long as peace is achieved but this is not the way.
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