Several Asian countries like Singapore and Hong Kong have extremely high inequality rates yet far lower unemployment rates than the US. Where is your proof that inequality causes job losses?
Job losses as the mechanism of inequality would very little nothing to do with Piketty's claims, which are about concentration of wealth at the very top due to intrinsic properties of returns on capital. Piketty's theory doesn't involve this either causing or being caused by job losses. So seeing unemployed people and taking it as confirmation of his work would be incorrect.
(In any case if you are correct about direction of causation, then surely we should worry about how to reduce job losses than how to take wealth away from the rich.)
Perhaps you would care to point to the part of the PDF that indicates the data are unreliable, and to comment on the plausibility argument, i.e. that the FT's analysis indicates that "Britain is currently one the most egalitarian countries in history in terms of wealth distribution" and in particular that it is far more equal than Sweden is or has ever been?
