
Why are people attracted to 50:50 probabilities? - js2
https://www.economist.com/finance-and-economics/2019/12/12/why-are-people-attracted-to-50-50-probabilities
======
thethirdone
> $1m rising from 0% to 1% seems much more significant than the chance of the
> same win rising from 20% to 21%.

0% to 1% is a much bigger change expected value when viewed as a ratio. 20% to
21% is a change of about 5% whereas 0% to 1% is an infinite or 100% change.

I think it is fair to say that the example does not demonstrate any human
bias.

