

Debunking Myths about Gender and Mathematics Performance - gruseom
http://ams.org/notices/201201/rtx120100010p.pdf

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StefanKarpinski
It's difficult to fathom how the authors interpret the data on page 14 as
_not_ supporting the hypothesis that there is a male/female variance ratio of
circa 1.1. Figure 1A is a generally bell-shaped curve centered around 1.1. In
Figure 1B, almost all of the points are below the 1:1 line, whereas if you
plot a 1.1:1 line, its a perfect fit. In Figure 1C, the x value where the
regression line intersects a zero gender gap (i.e. no evidence of cultural
bias), is at a variance ratio of about 1.1. All of the evidence the authors
present points to an underlying variance ratio near 1.1, yet somehow they
conclude the opposite.

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DaniFong
That's obvious. Culture factors are the main determinant that they could find.
It is unrealistic to assume the queried countries have a mean centered around
complete gender neutrality, so your analysis is invalid.

