
Coronavirus deaths correlated to population wide genetic markers - user4682
https://imgur.com/a/vrgEa8I
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user4682
Interested in thoughts on this.

R1b European populations appear to have higher COVID-19 deaths, while R1a
appear less affected.

This is controlled for different start time of the epidemic by counting deaths
at 28 days past the date of 1000 cases (the last country is therefore Greece,
that reached 1000 cases on March 29th, deaths counted on April 26th).

All countries had isolation measures - except Sweden which is excluded.

If this correlation is correct, all countries <0.8 R1b could relax isolation
measures with minimal adverse effects (Sweden levels).

Similar populations should have similar death rates. Looking at UK
(>300/Million) vs. Australia (3/Million), this possibly indicates Vitamin D
plays a role. Australia was in summer, with vit. D generated from UV exposure
in skin. UK was in the middle of winter.

This implies COVID-19 should wane during the summer in the northern
hemisphere, and come back in late winter when Vit. D levels fall in general
population.

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kolinko
All countries may have had isolation measures, but those were implemented at a
significantly different time. PL and CZ were among the first countries to
implement lovkdowns, and they did those when the number of cases was 10-100
less than the other countries.

Not mentioning that is in my opinion scientifically dishonest.

Other arguments: \- the correlation between a stop of disease growth and the
implementation of containment measures is very clear now

\- I don’t know about CZ, but in Poland we have a high death rate compared to
the number of found cases, even though we test more samples than Germany to
find one case. If anything, it would actually suggest that the death rates are
higher here than in DE, not the other way around.

The concept of haplogroups affecting covid is not new. The critique is also
there - posting a new chart about the subject and not mentioning of critique
is dishonest as well, imho.

