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I don't care what some innumerate reporter at the WaPo wrote.

According to the actual law, what must be fully funded is the "actuarial present value of all future benefits payable from the Fund." What this means is that if an employee's pension has 50% vested, their "future benefits payable from the Fund" are 50% of their pension. The USPS is then obligated to put 50% of the NPV of their pension into the fund by 2017.

https://www.govtrack.us/congress/bills/109/hr6407/text

It's explicitly stated 5 times it should comport with "generally accepted actuarial practices and principles", which rules out all the insanity people seem to be attributing to this law.




Yes, I know what the text of the bill states, which is why I referenced it in earlier comments. More importantly, you yourself have posted the relevant language. The "acturial present value" part of the quoted phrase is what must comport with generally accepted actuarial practices. The problem is that "all future benefits payable" is by its express language not limited to vested benefits. You need to read the entire code section, not just little snippets.


I'm very much enjoying this discussion and I hope you guys can find a definitive statement about what the bill entails. (I find the language you have both quoted from the bill to be too vague to my uncertified ear to make a decision.)

Is your claim that the postal service must pre-fund unvested benefits at the day the employee is hired? That is, is that how you think "future benefits payable" is being interpretted? Because what's definitely not true is that the postal service is being required to fund un-hired (or unborn) employees. See this article, which has quotes from the Congressional Research Service.

http://www.cnbc.com/id/45018432




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