I thought raison d'etat was about a state deciding its dealings with other states solely on the basis of national self interest rather than moral or legal principles. It's that doctrine's failure in Europe and subsequent laws that lead to the idea of 'international law', right?
As far as I know it does not apply to a government violating its own laws.
As far as I know it does not apply to a government violating its own laws.
Edit: subsequent WARS, not laws.