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That's not how foreclosures work. In most states, foreclosure is a judicially supervised sale in which the lien holder does not take title, but instead is entitled to part of the proceeds of the sale. Multiple lien holders may collect in case of say home equity loans, but at the end the original owner is entitled to whatever is left after satisfying the liens.

In some rare cases, with underwater mortgages, the lender may be allowed to take title.




That's not how foreclosures work.

I do see plenty of web references that describe foreclosures the way you do, but they all talk specifically about foreclosures when the lien is a mortgage. Does the same process apply when the lien is a tax lien? What information I can find suggests it doesn't--or at least, there seems to be a lot of wiggle room.




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