Thought the article says the council 'settled' christology, it still took hundreds of years before it was popularly resolved: for, at least, the first 500 years of christianity jesus was widely regarded as something more like a demigod.
This fairly clearly what Paul thought; with Luke likely believing just in a messianic role.
Early christianity is perhaps best seen as greeking of judaism: god the father is zeus, the angles are demigods, jesus is a half-human offspring of zeus, jesus has been sent to destroy the demonic forces and end the process of death (whereby we're sent to the underworld, etc.). Satan as something more like a peer of God (this indeed, was the original OT role: santan was an angle appointed by god to test people).
The whole thing starts to make less-and-less sense the more this greek frame is dropped: if jesus ends up being god himself, and there is no hell, etc. it becomes basically incoherent. Why would god send god to resurrect people which is something god can already do?
Yahweh was originally a weather god, not unlike Zeus, well before being interwoven with El during proto-Judaism [1]. Any "Greek period" of the eventual Jewish faith, to which you refer, ended certainly by their complete adoption of monotheism. Judaism came "pre-Greeked".
That particular Council affirmed that Christianity's God is triune by expressly rejecting Arianism. God sending God to do things God could already do is heavily a consequence of the trinity [2], hence why Nicaea was a big deal theologically.
Whether a monotheistic God is unary, binary, trinary, etc has implications that seem sufficiently fundamental that no major religion will abandon its chosen view.
Then you agree with me. My phrasing is for an audience who is unaware that the gospels already disagree on Christology. I was retrospectively talking about the pauline-johnian views which won and what they were like
From the article it sounds like it all went down differently, but I had originally thought, as someone who's served on standards committees, that Easter as a mobile feast would be an excellent compromise position if there were multiple fixed candidates, for one could then guarantee celebration would coincide with each faction's proposal infinitely often (with only a finite number of non coincidences in between).
Arianism is easily in my top 3 heterodoxies. (Along with Pelagianism and Lollardism, though the moment Charismatic Catholicism is officially condemned Wycliffe gets bumped to an ignoble 4).
(a) if my theology be accurate, at least jews, christians, muslims, and mormons all believe they believe in the same god (their differences lying in beliefs as to which prophets had commit bits), so it's not surprising that Rome would have declared their impression of his philosophy an official heresy, eg https://www.vatican.va/content/pius-x/en/encyclicals/documen...
(b) although he said he was being misinterpreted, his congregation* also threw him out for what they saw as heresy.
* reform is XIX, and haredim are XX, so it's probably safe to say his XVII congregation was orthodox?
Well, I just meant that Spinoza was a Jewish heretic, not a Christian heretic (at least, no more than say, Mohammad), since the discussion was about Christian heresies specifically. The encyclical only discusses pantheism rather than Spinoza---I don't know that pantheism is specifically Spinoza's invention. Of course, no doubt that Spinoza wouldn't be considered a conforming Christian by any Christian church, but not just because he wrote "Deus sive Natura" (the extent to which Spinoza's thought on the relationship between God and creation is incompatible with classical theism is up for debate, it seems to me. See the interesting comments by /u/wokeupabug here - https://old.reddit.com/r/askphilosophy/comments/nar433/how_d...).
Thanks for the wokeupabug comments; very interesting!
Now I am mediating on the contrast between "God created the best possible Creation" and "God creates all possible Creations" (Spinoza opting for the latter on omnipotence grounds; being limited to creating an element of the lattice is less potent than creating an ideal of the lattice). This seems to imply an infinite lattice* of Creations, for in a finite lattice, we could always identify the possible Creations with their principal Creation?
* yes, I haven't defined either meet or join of Creations; please bear with me on this point...
EDIT: forgot "panentheism"; IIUC:
theism: God & Creation = ∅
panentheism: God & Creation = Creation
pantheism: God = Creation
I don't know if theologians have a word for it, but the most general situation would be that both (God & Creation) and (God ^ Creation) may take on values other than God, Creation, and ∅.
Right - but "God creates all possible Creations" is true for Spinoza but only in the sense that for Spinoza there is only one possible creation, the one that we are living in now, so God creates the only possible creation. As in, there are no possible potential realities for Spinoza---the only possible world is the one that we're living in. And so for Spinoza, God's omnipotence is expressed through his actualization of creation---that is, roughly speaking, it's not just that God could do anything that is possible, it's that God is willing everything that is possible right now, because the only possible way for things to be is the way things are (this is what wokeupabug means when he talks about Spinoza's conflation of God's power and will). This is, to be sure, something that classical theists would quarrel with.
---------
For your edit:
I don't know about "God & Creation = empty set", it depends on what exactly you mean by that. Classical theists say that all things don't exist independently, but exist in/through/from God (the prepositions vary). What exactly does that mean? Well, a lot of ink has been spilled fleshing out what the relationship between God and creation is, and people have had various ideas on what it is. It seems to me to be an oversimplification to categorize things neatly into theism/pantheism/panentheism without further clarification; these things are complicated. It's been said of Aquinas (certainly a little-o orthodox theologian), apparently, that he's the closest you can be to being a pantheist without being a pantheist.
OK, how about this model: God (being a Proper god) could create inconsistent worlds, but will not (and the only consistent world is our own). Would this model be true for both Spinoza and for classical theists?
----
for my edit; the formalisations were attempts to convey (although I agree they're probably oversimplifications) the following general ideas:
God & Creation = ∅
(the Creator and the Creation are distinct;
nothing is part of both)
God & Creation = Creation
is equivalent to God ⊇ Creation
(the Creation is part of the Creator)
God = Creation
is equivalent to (God ⊇ Creation ∧ Creation ⊇ God)
(the Creation and the Creator equivale:
they may be freely substituted in a proof)
In general, Spinoza and classical theists do not think God's omnipotence means he can create inconsistent worlds (e.g. he cannot create square circles); omnipotence (for them) means that God can do anything that is logically possible. For Spinoza, he thinks this means that only our current world is logically possible, because if there were other worlds that God didn't actualize, Spinoza thinks this would imply God's lack of omnipotence. For Aquinas, a classical theist, see Article 5 in this section of the Summa [0]. For Leibniz (not a classical theist, but having heavy disagreements with Spinoza), God could create other worlds like Aquinas, but unlike Aquinas, thinks this means that this world is the best of all possible worlds, which is why God actualizes this world as opposed to other possible worlds (Aquinas thinks otherwise - see article 6 of [0]).
For your edit, it's not clear exactly what "nothing is part of both" means in the context of God and his creation. I know it seems like I'm being needlessly difficult and pedantic, but the issue is that God is a being unlike any other. So much so that Aquinas would say that my latter statement is technically false - God is not a being, rather, he is the sheer act of "to be" itself. And so spelling out the relationship between God and beings is tricky---what exactly does it mean for a being to be part of/have being through/exist in/have being from something that isn't strictly speaking a being? Those prepositional phrases, when used in relation to God, clearly have a very different meaning than when we use them to characterize the relation of two beings, e.g. a leaf and a tree. That is all to say: classical theists may not disagree with "creation is a part of God" depending on how they interpret "part of"---if this means "creation has its being in God", then this is something perfectly agreeable to them.
For the moment, let's put any "part of/containment/belonging to" relation between creator and created aside (in part due to the subtleties you note; in part because I'm more interested in the necessity and possibility of creations, and —despite having slept on it— don't understand Aquinas yet).
(in parentheses: sorry for my ad-hoc notation earlier; I've been looking for a survey paper on Algebraic Theology to find out what the conventions are for this field, thus far unsuccessfully)
Article 5: I still don't understand properly, but do see that Aquinas' conclusion is that our creation is not the only possible one (and is therefore contingent?) See note about maximum vs. maximal below.
Article 6: IIUC: things consist of their essence and their accidents. If two things share the same essence, we say one is greater than the other if its accidents be greater. It is possible to "max out" the accidents, however, and in that case to create something "greater" one must create something with an essence which is better than the original essence (as 5 is greater than 4; natural numbers having no accidents).
[I fail to find Aquinas' reply to objection 4 convincing, or even necessarily relevant? As far as I do follow it, it does imply that "greater" is only a partial order, as Mary and created happiness (whatever that may be) are both coatoms in this order: anything which is at least as great as Mary must be either Mary or God, and similarly for created happiness] see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Atom_(order_theory)#Coatoms
As the reply to object 3 shows, this creation may be the greatest possible creation of its essence, but even if God is limited to creating only the "best" creations, he can always create a universe whose essence is greater than that of ours. (here I am imagining that the essence of a universe might be the set of the possible essences within that universe, and the accidents of the universe would be the set of accidents of incidents of those essences, and the set of all the relations between them) So for instance, our universe is the best possible universe with only 7 colours, but God could create a universe with an 8th colour ("octarine" without loss of generality), and then he would have to create a "best possible" universe under those constraints (todo: the maximum universe, or merely a maximal universe?), leaving open the choice of creating universes yet greater.
For example (taking a small model because we lack infinite wisdom), we could say that possible universes are grammatical english sentences, the essence of a universe being the words contained in it, and the accidents being the position of those words within the sentence. Furthermore, sentence A is greater than sentence B if it can be formed by adding words to B, without rearranging B. Examples: "See Spot run" is greater than "See Spot"; "The man upon the stair wasn't there" is greater than "The man wasn't there"; "See Spot run" and "Dick and Jane" are unrelated: neither is greater than the other. Essence A is greater than essence B if all the potential words of B are also potential words of A, so "See Spot run quickly" is greater than "Quickly, see!" even though there is a rearrangement, because its essence is greater.
From this model we recover Aquinas. Given many essences, it is possible to create the greatest sentence using only those words; {"Run","See","Spot"} has the sole possibility of "See Spot run"; {"fast","he","is","very"} has no greatest sentence, for one can always add another "very"; and {"Dick","Jane","kisses"} has two greatest sentences, for "Dick kisses Jane" and "Jane kisses Dick" are incomparable, however, there are greater creations, for {"Dick","Jane","kisses","passionately"} is a greater essence (with 6 maximal creations).
I think what you've said is generally correct in that: yes, Aquinas thinks that making a thing better is possible insofar as its accidents can be made better, but not its essence since changing its essence would make that thing cease to be that thing. Your sentence analogy is apt. Aquinas does indeed think creation is contingent (though someone like Leibniz does too---it's just that Leibniz thinks God is obligated to actualize the best possible worlds as opposed to other possible worlds, but such worlds are still possible, and thus contingent.) The idea that creation is necessary is somewhat fringe (among theists and atheists alike). The idea that all things that are possible are necessary, modal collapse, is generally seen to be so untenable that if a consequence of an argument is modal collapse, it's almost seen as a reductio ad absurdum. This is the case for, for example, Gödel's ontological proof of God.
Maybe one relevant item here is that Aquinas thinks God is the most perfect, and that God cannot make creation to be as good as him---so while it might be true that God can make something that is better than a particular thing (by making something with a different essence), he cannot make something infinitely perfect (the only such thing is himself).
To be sure - God and creation being indistinguishable isn't something that Spinoza would agree with either. Two relevant items here.
One is that God has an infinite number of attributes, only two of which are extension and thought (the only ones we can know). All physical things are modes of the attribute of extension, and all "mental" things are modes of the attribute of thought. So if creation just means the set of all physical things (or even "mental" things), these are just the set of all modes of extension, an attribute of God, (along with the set of all modes of thought, another attribute of God, if you include mental things). But these are but extension and thought are but two of the infinitely many attributes of God.
Two is that Spinoza draws a distinction between the set of all of the modes of the attributes of God (Natura naturata) and God himself (Natura naturans). (See the Note of Proposition 29 of Part 1 of Ethics.)
So if by pantheism we mean that God is nothing but the set of all things, Spinoza does not seem to be a pantheist.
That isn't to say that Spinoza is just a perfectly orthodox theologian, of course, but just that reducing the radical nature of his theology to the word "pantheism" (construed as creation and God being the same) appears to be an oversimplification.
(Also, minor note, in the last comment I said Leibniz thinks God actualizes the best possible worlds, that's a typo, I meant the best possible world, singular.)
Rough going so far, as Spinoza is both precise and uses words in the senses they had in Scholastic times.
I think I understand how Spinoza is not a pantheist, though: God determines Creation, in that the Creation is the maximal object that could be created from God, and the Creation determines God, in that God is the minimal object that could create the Creation, so they're two very distinct things, but in a 1:1 relationship.
(examples: intension/extension in logic, cones/gamut in vision, grammar/language in informatics)
I'm not sure how easy the distinction between his viewpoint and pantheism would have been to explain to someone with a XVII background, but Aquinas defo would've been unhappy with the "the deity can create any universe he wants, as long as it's black" part.
(hmm. if our universe only uses up two attributes, 'thought' for all the abstracts and 'extent' for all the concretes, are there any other universes lurking in the remaining infinity of attributes? this also opens the question of whether we're dealing with a countable infinity of attributes, or a higher cardinal...)
>Creation is the maximal object that could be created from God
Well, just the only one, but I suppose the maximal element of a set with one element is just that element, so yeah.
>Creation determines God, in that God is the minimal object that could create the Creation
Well, the only thing that could create Creation, but I suppose the minimal element of a set with one element is just that element, so yeah.
>Aquinas defo would've been unhappy with the "the deity can create any universe he wants, as long as it's black" part.
Hmm, I don't know what you mean by this. Spinoza isn't saying this, Spinoza is saying that God must have created only this universe, and everything that God does is necessary---there's nothing else he can do.
>if our universe only uses up two attributes
OK, so it's not that our universe is only uses two attributes, it's that we can only perceive things with respect to two attributes. There's only one possible universe, which is this one, and it's necessarily this one.
Yes, I was purposely playing with the trivial definitions of maximal and minimal (max{x} = min{x} = x) to draw out an analogy with the modern concept of Galois Connections.
> there's nothing else he can do.
Right, and I thought Aquinas' take was that he must be capable of doing otherwise, but doesn't.
> we can only perceive things with respect to two attributes
Aha, so this universe uses all (are they countable?) attributes, but we imperfect finite creatures only perceive thought and extension; angels might perceive three, or a dozen, or all the attributes? (which would make sense: Samuel Johnson can both think of a rock and perceive its extension of mass in space, but the rock, while it might "perceive" the extension of Johnson's foot in space does not think of Johnson. So a creature beyond us as we are beyond the rock might have metathought? "be not afraid" indeed!)
That's another reason to introduce the maximal and minimal: those def'ns would still go through even with an Aquinas-style god.
(and they yield an irreligious 1=3 trinitarian argument: if C takes a god to its maximal creation, and G takes a creation to its minimal god, then CG and GC are not necessarily the identity, but we do necessarily have C = CGC and G = GCG)
Definitely, Neoplatonism was a big influence on Abrahamic philosophical thought. Though the real locus classicus for God is Aristotle's Metaphysics, specifically his description of the unmoved mover. There are some not-so-minor differences between Aristotle's theology and Abrahamic theology, but God insofar as he is the ground of all being is a concept that most clearly originated in Aristotle's work.
oops, I was reading the "contingent things must be dependent upon necessary things" as implying modality, but you're right that if it's there it's only implicit.
right, there is something modal going on here, but in terms of the formal mathematical tool of modal logic, Spinoza isn't using them, though I think you understood that from the start.
I suppose this is relevant on account of it being Easter.
Growing up Catholic, we always said the Nicene Creed during Mass, which kind of enumerates the standard Catholic beliefs. I never thought much about it, but a non-Christian friend who joined me one time said thought it was creepy and cult like, us all standing there saying it in unison. I appreciated a universal, orthodox set of beliefs determined to be "correct" by experts, rather than the Wild West of Protestantism where it seemed every church was more unique and centered around its pastor.
I was pretty surprised to learn the Council of Nicaea wasn't until a few hundred years after the ostensible start of the church, and remember thinking it was strange how it was all topsy turvy right after the supposed events around Jesus, and went several generations when no one original was still around before it settled down.
The history of the early Church is pretty interesting from a political / anthropological perspective.
The creed recited in both a Catholic and various non-Catholic churches as the "Nicene creed" isn't actually the one agreed at the First Council, there's a Wikipedia page explaining the substantial differences.
The creed does explicitly say it's about believing in "one holy catholic and apostolic church" but by that it doesn't mean the Roman Catholic church specifically. It's talking about a hypothetical church (in the sense of a group of Christians, not a building) which is united.
Christian Churches which don't claim there's a hypothetical united Christian church in which it just happens they got all the details right and everybody else didn't are outliers. Ecumenical discussions (typically between Roman Catholics and other large Christian sects) tend to carefully avoid trying to figure out who is right, instead trying to find matters on which they can agree. So e.g. exactly what's going on with Transubstantiation? Point of disagreement, best to not mention it. Do people sin? Yes. Is this old church building nice? Yes. Should we get a tax break? Yes. Easy stuff. The Nicene Creed is thus in this easy category.
Not sure why this is on HN. Council of Nicaea is a favorite flashpoint for conspiracy theory people. But in reality it wasn't all that special. It was just one event in many that shaped Christianity. Basically its like a ISO Standards meeting. Lots of old guys making obscure arguments based on interpretations of obscure text about things that essentially don't matter outside of a bunch of nerds.
The connection between their arguments and the actual resulting Christian practice is tenuous at best or more likely irrelevant.
And all things considered its pretty late in the formation of Christianity of the Church. By 325 the church was pretty unified on the most important things.
Its just more famous because we have slightly better documentation for this history. We have almost nothing for the first century. In the second century our records are incredibly spotty and fragmented. It gets a bit better in the 3rd and 4rd century.
There is so much interesting 'Christian' history of the early 2 centuries that people are totally unaware off. If you want to see into some of that strange history, you might want to read something like: "Found Christianities: Remaking the World of the Second Century CE"
> Council of Nicaea is a favorite flashpoint for conspiracy theory people
Could you please elaborate on that a bit? I do not know much about conspiracy theories, but I am curious why an event so ancient can fuel contemporary conspiracies
Obviously Christianity is important and thus loved by many but that also means its hated by many. The Council of Nicaea is when 'the state' gets very directly involved with 'the religion'. So if you want to claim some ancient conspiracy exists where state and religion conspire, Council of Nicaea is a nice starting point.
As long as people are respectful and follow the guidelines, sure.
Edit: your other replies are not respectful and seem to violate the guidelines.
Edit 2: Anyone can be respectful to anyone else regardless of beliefs. Choosing not to be respectful doesn't say anything about the beliefs, it speaks as to the person being disrespectful. This will be my last edit/reply.
The only person here inciting a flamewar is you. Nice attempt at "concern trolling"
Your trolling in the other comments is the problem that you claim to be against. Everyone else seems to be having a rational discussion without letting their emotions influence their writing except for you.
Oh please. I stated a position that isn't even controversial, noting that these sorts of discussions are not really what folks tend to want on hackernews. Responses have been from agreement to claims of trolling. Feel free to give more compassion to folks with religious trauma as you join us all in being better folks.
are not really what folks tend to want on hackernews
This is simply not true - the thing that's unwanted is flamewars. The goal (aspirational as it may be) is curious conversation. If you are unable, for whatever reason, to engage in a topic with curiosity, that's totally fine but it's on you not to bring deliberate arson to the conversation other people might have.
None of this invalidates your views or experiences but the notion they give you some sort of righteous justification to poop in the thread is preposterous. You don't even have the excuse of ignorance - you've been here well over a decade.
> Can you just stop? It's really a much worse thing than whatever your problem with discussion over [a sensitive topic that will certainly bait flamewars] is. There's reams of mod commentary about it. https://hn.algolia.com/?dateRange=all&page=0&prefix=false&qu...
Since you are wanting to continue conversing meta, feel free, but I'm done. The point has been made and enough folks recognize a toxic topic to HN when they see one (which is why this thread has been flaggedeathed), and I'm happy to leave the dead thread where it stands.
Both 'why is this on HN' (right in the site guidelines) and 'let's start a religious flamewar' are things to avoid here. If you don't like the topic, read another post. If you think it doesn't belong on HN, flag it or email hn@ycombinator.com with your concerns.
This fairly clearly what Paul thought; with Luke likely believing just in a messianic role.
Early christianity is perhaps best seen as greeking of judaism: god the father is zeus, the angles are demigods, jesus is a half-human offspring of zeus, jesus has been sent to destroy the demonic forces and end the process of death (whereby we're sent to the underworld, etc.). Satan as something more like a peer of God (this indeed, was the original OT role: santan was an angle appointed by god to test people).
The whole thing starts to make less-and-less sense the more this greek frame is dropped: if jesus ends up being god himself, and there is no hell, etc. it becomes basically incoherent. Why would god send god to resurrect people which is something god can already do?