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Okay, then explain this: There is no fossil evidence of neanderthals in east asia or australia. There is a lot of fossil evidence of neanderthals in europe. If humans mated with neanderthals, then why is there no stronger presence of neanderthal DNA is europeans (compared to asians) in either this study or the previous one?



Nobody is suggesting that Neanderthals were in East Asia or Australia. The theory is that during the exodus from Africa, genetic exchange occurred.


Yes, but don't you get it? AFTER the exodus from Africa, the two populations were living in the same region (europe), but did not inter-mix at all anymore. Otherwise there would be more DNA in the europeans.

Why mix when in the middle east and then refuse to mix when in Europe?


I do not think that human history occurred the way you think it occurred.


How did it happen then? It appears you have no idea


This is a good question and I have no idea why you're being downvoted. I think I've heard there's evidence that interbreeding happened in Europe as well.


Then why is European DNA lower than far Asian?




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