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It appears it doesn't, but I'd like to know WHY it doesn't.

Do Javascript parsers look at the next line before judging whether or not to treat the line-ending as an implicit semicolon?

(Do all parsers treat it in the same way? Is it part of the spec?)




Everything you need to know:

http://blog.izs.me/post/2353458699/an-open-letter-to-javascr...

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Yes. Yes. Yes.

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