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> yet they are expected to still marry women who have been with an unknown number of partners

Why does this matter?

For women, divorce risk spikes sharply after the first sexual partner: https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1111/j.1741-3737....


>The results presented in this article replicate findings from previous research: Women who cohabit prior to marriage or who have premarital sex have an increased likelihood of marital disruption. Considering the joint effects of premarital cohabitation and premarital sex, as well as histories of premarital relationships, extends previous research. The most salient finding from this analysis is that women whose intimate premarital relationships are limited to their husbands—either premarital sex alone or premarital cohabitation—do not experience an increased risk of divorce. It is only women who have more than one intimate premarital relationship who have an elevated risk of marital disruption. This effect is strongest for women who have multiple premarital coresidental unions. These findings are consistent with the notion that premarital sex and cohabitation have become part of the normal courtship pattern in the United States. They do not indicate selectivity on characteristics linked to the risk of divorce and do not provide couples with experiences that lessen the stability of marriage.

OK, so? It's easy to find abstracts of papers that support just about any conclusion, but you still need to provide a link if you're making an argument (and it isn't obvious if that's what you're doing.) Furthermore, it's a fallacy that divorces are inherently a bad thing. If you think you should only date women who have never been with any other men out of insecurity that they'll leave you otherwise then you're setting your relationship up for failure from the beginning.

Good grief.

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