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How on Earth is that obvious? There’s no special reason to expect the pronunciation of any particular Romance language to more closely approximate Classical Latin than another, especially when it’s been 400 years since Latin was a language many people spoke fluently and well over a thousand years since Vulgar Latin diverged from the written standard? Why Spanish or Italian and not Portuguese, Romanian, French or Sardinian?

This is like expecting Mashreqi Arabic to be closer to the spoken language in Mohammed’s time than Levantine, Egyptian or Maghrebi Arabic. There’s no real reason to privilege one of the Arabic languages above the other as more conservative, a priori.

If you’re interested in Latin pronunciation read this.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latin_spelling_and_pronunciati...




My point was more that it is unlikely to have been pronounced ss upper-class English.




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