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the wife only gets half after ten years or something

You mean 'spouse' right?

Edit: Granted, there may not be very many instances (or any for that matter) where the man is going after the woman's wealth, but the point is that the provision applies to both parties.

Yes, in theory. But anecdotes of the opposite case happening do not readily come to mind (though this is a cognitive bias). It’s my understanding courts favor women in divorce proceedings.

I am a woman who pays my ex-husband a small amount of alimony, and a significant amount of child support even though we have 50-50 physical custody.

The courts do not favor the woman, they favor the spouse in the weaker position financially, especially if that spouse was the primary caregiver. In most cases, this is the woman.

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