This reminds me of a challenge at the Free University Berlin. A lecturer gave the following list of numbers to his students. The task was to find two different subsets that have the same sum:
His point was: It it simple to prove that those subsets must exist, but it is very hard to compute them. To make his point even more clear, he offered some prize money if anyone found an explicit solution.
A friend told me about that challenge, and I tried. With a lot of conceptual work, programming, optimization and some luck I was finally able find such a solution (and received the prize):
You just have to compare the number of subsets with the number of possible sum values.
1) There are 90 numbers, so we have 2^90 subsets.
2) All numbers are < 10^25, so the sum of all 90 numbers is < 90 * 10^25 < 10^27. So each sum of a subset is an integer in the range of 0 to 10^27-1. So we have ≤ 10^27 possible sum values.
Since 2^90 > 10^27, we have more subsets than possible sum values. Hence, there are at least two subsets having the same sum.
Regarding item 1, yes there are 2^90 ways to choose one subset, but since you are comparing two separate subsets, those subsets can't overlap (or else you could just choose the same subset twice!), so it seems like there should be "more" to this calculation? Am I missing something here?
Edit: wait I think I've got it:
Each subset implicitly also chooses it's counter subset, e.g. if you choose the subset consisting of the first 45 numbers, you've also therefore said the other subset consists of the last 45 numbers. Since there are more of these "dual subsets" than possible sums, the pigeonhole principle yadda-yadda.
You are not forced to use all numbers. (And in fact, my explicit solution doesn't use all numbers.) There is no restriction that the union of both subsets must be equal to the full set. Note that this restriction would change the question dramatically. See also: https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=10023098
Also note that it is allowed for both chosen subsets to overlap. In fact, the proof just says that two different (i.e. not entirely equal) subsets with the same sum exist.
However, once you have a pair of different overlapping subsets of the same sum, you can simply remove the intersection from both sets. Both sums decrease by the same amount. You then get a pair of two disjoint sets that have the same sum.
And no, I don't think the proof would not work when requiring the two subsets to form a partition. Also note that for partitions, the number of sums would be one, as the only possible sum is half of the sum of all numbers. (And the problem would be unsolvable if the sum of all numbers was odd, but all numbers were still integers.)
http://www.inf.fu-berlin.de/lehre/WS07/mafi1/90zahlen.txt
His point was: It it simple to prove that those subsets must exist, but it is very hard to compute them. To make his point even more clear, he offered some prize money if anyone found an explicit solution.
A friend told me about that challenge, and I tried. With a lot of conceptual work, programming, optimization and some luck I was finally able find such a solution (and received the prize):
https://njh.eu/90
(Sorry, German language, but the solution is readable, I guess :-))