His study of more than a billion hands of online Texas Hold’em found that 85.2 percent of the hands were decided without a show of cards. In other words, players’ betting decisions were of overwhelming importance in determining the outcome. Of the remaining 14.8 percent, almost half were won by a player who didn't hold the best hand but instead had induced the player with the best hand to fold before the showdown.
Isn't inducing the player with the best hand to fold before showdown the same as a hand decided without a show of cards? Or do they mean that 85.2% of hands were decided without seeing the flop? Both don't sound right.
I think what that must mean is:
Players 1, 2, and 3 have the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd best hand, respectively.
During betting, player 1 folds. Neither player 2 nor 3 fold and eventually show their hands.
Thus player 2 wins not by having the best hand, but by getting the player with the best hand to fold AND winning the showdown.
85.2% of hands were won without a showdown, ie. getting to the river and everyone remaining showing their hands. This sounds exactly right, and I play a lot of poker. If someone induces someone to fold their hand without showing their hand, it means they were able to out-bet the person, which is skill-based.
Isn't inducing the player with the best hand to fold before showdown the same as a hand decided without a show of cards? Or do they mean that 85.2% of hands were decided without seeing the flop? Both don't sound right.